"to have been" vs "as have been"

[Musicgold]

Hi,

Can I replace the following first sentence by the second sentence?

1. Applicants should consider both whether they can remain objective and whether their integrity might be perceived by their clients to have been compromised.

2. Applicants should consider ...... as have been compromised.

Thanks,

MG.

[Yankee]

Hi MG

For your second sentence, you should say "as having been compromised".
.

[Molly]

Why not in the first sentence also?

[Yankee]

.
In the first sentence, "to have been compromised" is a perfect infinitive (passive) and does not need correction.

The word 'as' in the second sentence is a preposition. Thus the -ing form (gerund) 'having' is required.

Compare the use of a noun:
"That was perceived as a mistake."
.

[Musicgold]

Could anybody please suggest a link or two where I can read more about this? Thanks.

[Yankee]

Here are two links on this site:
http://www.english-test.net/forum/ftopic23455.html
http://www.english-test.net/forum/ftopic11868.html

Here are some additional links:
http://www.edufind.com/English/grammar/inf6.cfm
http://www.englishforums.com/English/PerfectInfinitive/pgkn/post.htm
http://simple.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infinitive

Here is a link about prepositions and gerunds:
http://www.englishclub.com/grammar/verbs-gerunds_2.htm
.